NR566 Week 2: Quiz

What is the primary mechanism by which penicillins exert their bactericidal effect?

A. Disruption of DNA gyrase activity
B. Blocking folic acid synthesis in bacterial cells
C. Inhibition of bacterial ribosome subunits
D. Binds cell-wall synthesizing proteins ✅

A patient with suspected bacterial meningitis requires empiric therapy. Which property of the chosen antibiotic is MOST critical?

A. Ability to penetrate the blood-brain barrier effectively ✅
B. Broad activity against Gram-negative gut pathogens
C. High oral bioavailability to improve patient compliance
D. Low cost to reduce the overall burden on the healthcare system

A patient with bacterial meningitis requires empiric IV antibiotic therapy. Which cephalosporin is MOST appropriate due to its ability to cross the blood-brain barrier?

A. Ceftriaxone (3rd generation) ✅
B. Cefadroxil (1st generation)
C. Cefazolin (1st generation)
D. Cephalexin (1st generation)………………………….purchase entire quiz at $20 only